Class 10 Physics • Chapter 03 (Deep Detail)
Machine: A device which enables us to obtain a gain in force or gain in speed or change the direction of force.
Functions:
($d_E$ = displacement of effort, $d_L$ = displacement of load)
VR depends on the geometry/design of the machine and does not change with friction.
For Ideal Machine: $\eta = 1$ (100%), so $MA = VR$.
For Practical Machine: $\eta < 1$, so $MA < VR$ (due to friction/weight of parts).
REASONING Can a machine have an efficiency of 100%? If not, why?
Ans: No practical machine is 100% efficient. Energy is always wasted in overcoming friction between moving parts and lifting the weight of the machine parts (like pulleys or lever arms). Thus, Output Work < Input Work.
CONCEPTUAL Explain why the Mechanical Advantage (MA) of a machine is always less than its Velocity Ratio (VR) in practice?
Ans: $\eta = MA/VR$. Since efficiency $\eta < 1$ due to friction and weight of moving parts, $MA < VR$.
A rigid bar capable of turning about a fixed point (Fulcrum).
Principle of Levers: Load $\times$ Load Arm = Effort $\times$ Effort Arm.
Class I (F in middle - L F E): Fulcrum between Load and Effort.
Class II (L in middle - F L E): Load between Fulcrum and Effort.
APPLICATION Classify the human forearm as a lever. What is its mechanical advantage status?
Ans: Class III Lever (Effort is between Fulcrum and Load). Its MA is always less than 1, meaning it acts as a speed multiplier (hands move faster than biceps contraction).
NUMERICAL A crowbar of length 120 cm has its fulcrum situated at a distance of 20 cm from the load. Calculate mechanical advantage.
Solution: Length=120cm. Load Arm ($L_{arm}$)=20cm. Effort Arm ($E_{arm}$)=$120-20=100cm$.
$MA = E_{arm}/L_{arm} = 100/20 = 5$.
THINKING Why do we use fire tongs if they have a mechanical advantage less than 1?
Ans: Safety. They extend reach to handle hot objects. Even though effort required is more, the safety and convenience are the advantages.
System with two blocks: Upper dynamic (fixed) and Lower movable.
DIAGRAM & NUMERICAL A woman draws water from a well using a block and tackle system of velocity ratio 4.
(i) Draw a labelled diagram of the system.
(ii) If she exerts a pull of 200 N, what is the maximum load she can raise? (Assume $\eta = 100\%$).
Solution:
(ii) $MA = VR = 4$. $MA = Load/Effort$
$\implies 4 = L / 200 \implies L = 800 \text{ N}$.
NUMERICAL A block and tackle system has 5 pulleys. An effort of 1000 N is needed in the downward direction to raise a load of 4500 N. Calculate (a) MA, (b) VR, (c) Efficiency.
Solution: $n=5 \implies VR=5$. $E=1000, L=4500$.
MA = $4500/1000 = 4.5$.
$\eta = MA/VR = 4.5/5 = 0.9 = 90\%$.
In actual systems, Efficiency < 100%.
CONCEPTUAL A crowbar of length 120 cm has its fulcrum situated at a distance of 20 cm from the load. Calculate mechanical advantage.
Solution:
Length of crowbar = 120 cm. Fulcrum is at 20 cm from load.
Load Arm ($L_{arm}$) = 20 cm.
Effort Arm ($E_{arm}$) = Total length - Load Arm (Assuming load at end) = $120 - 20 = 100 \text{ cm}$. (Note: Crowbar is Class I lever).
$MA = \frac{\text{Effort Arm}}{\text{Load Arm}} = \frac{100}{20} = 5$.
Ans: MA is 5.
NUMERICAL A block and tackle system has 5 pulleys. An effort of 1000 N is needed in the downward direction to raise a load of 4500 N. Calculate (a) MA, (b) VR, (c) Efficiency.
Solution:
Given: $n = 5$ (Total pulleys), $E = 1000 \text{ N}$, $L = 4500 \text{ N}$.
(a) $MA = \frac{L}{E} = \frac{4500}{1000} = 4.5$
(b) $VR = n = 5$ (Number of pulleys)
(c) $\eta = \frac{MA}{VR} \times 100\% = \frac{4.5}{5} \times 100\%$
$= 0.9 \times 100\% = 90\%$
Ans: MA = 4.5, VR = 5, Efficiency = 90%.
THINKING Why do we use fire tongs if they have a mechanical advantage less than 1?
Solution:
Fire tongs are Class III levers where effort is in the middle. We use them not to multiply force, but for safety (handling hot objects from a distance) and convenience. Even though MA < 1, they provide a safe extension of our hands.
DERIVATION For a single movable pulley, if the weight of the pulley is $w$, derive the expression for MA.
Solution:
In equilibrium, Upward Forces = Downward Forces.
$L + w = 2T \implies T = \frac{L+w}{2}$. And Effort $E = T$.
So, $E = \frac{L+w}{2} \implies 2E = L + w$
$\implies L = 2E - w$.
$MA = \frac{L}{E} = \frac{2E - w}{E} = 2 - \frac{w}{E}$.
Result: MA is less than 2 due to weight of pulley.
REASONING Why is a single fixed pulley used if its MA is only 1?
Ans: To change the direction of effort. It allows effort to be applied downwards (using body weight) rather than lifting upwards.